lues, the military profession, trust, leadership, mission command, the concept of Jointness, and advancing the profession. [objective62] True False ________________________________________ 2) "The United States Armed Forces (is) comprised of Active-duty, Reserve, and National Guard components, today's all-volunteer" military, known as the "Total Force." Is today's military known as the 'Total Force?'" [objective63] True False ________________________________________ 3) The concept of "jointness" must be advanced through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply? [objective64] Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development. "Jointness" is not an automatic service state of being. Service members naturally embrace "jointness." Joint force development is a "one time" occurrence in one's career. ________________________________________ 4) A thorough understanding of the _____ is essential to mission command. [objective65] situation commander's intent chain of command risks ________________________________________ 5) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. _____ fitness refers to the ability to perform mission-specific duties in any environment. [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N] Physical Behavioral Social Environmental ________________________________________ 6) With increasing rank comes increasing _____. [objective67] risks compensation stress responsibility ________________________________________ 7) Which hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas? [objective68] major combat operations humanitarian assistance operations support for civil authorities irregular warfare environment ________________________________________ 8) Ethical conduct in the procurement process is particularly important to ensure fair and competitive in-theater acquisition efforts and ensure these processes do not have a negative impact on the JFC's mission. Problems affecting any aspect of the acquisition process can affect timely provision of support to the commander and in some cases negatively impact the civil-military aspects of the operation or campaign. [objective69] True False ________________________________________ 9) Many external factors impact the psychological health of individuals. The culture of the military and its expectations and the _____ cycles require frequent change and adjustment. [objective70] promotion deployment/redeployment weather training ________________________________________ 10) Successful teamwork in the joint environment requires trust, confidence, and _____. [objective66] cooperation clear rules of engagement time to develop close supervision Module 4 - Introduction to Joint Fundamentals Post Test contains 12 Questions 1) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to project power in areas in which access and freedom to operate are challenged. [objective72] Provide a stabilizing presence Deter and defeat aggression Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent ________________________________________ 2) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America's security commitments. [objective73] [Remediation Accessed :N] Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent Provide a stabilizing presence Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges Deter and defeat aggression ________________________________________ 3) The purpose of a(n) _____ action is to place the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power. [objective74] maneuver offensive mass objective ________________________________________ 4) The purpose of a(n) _____ action is to place the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power. [objective75] objective offensive maneuver mass ________________________________________ 5) These four broad areas can be integrated and adapted to satisfy a commander's requirements in a joint operation: [objective76] [Remediation Accessed :N] political, military, infrastructure and information diplomatic, information, military, and economic military engagement, large- scale combat, security, and relief and reconstruction military, economic, social, infrastructure ________________________________________ 6) Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? [objective83] size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility static vs. dynamic mission sets centralized vs. decentralized approach base-centric vs. ship-centric ________________________________________ 7) The _____ prescribe the chain of command within their Combatant Commands (CCMDs) and designate the appropriate command authority to be exercised by subordinate commanders. [objective78] Combatant Commanders Functional Combatant Commanders Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Secretaries of the Military Departments ________________________________________ 8) The _____ is the principal military advisor to the President, the SecDef, National Security Council, and the Homeland Security Council. [objective79] Secretary of the Army Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Inspector General of the DoD JCS Vice Chairman ________________________________________ 9) Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments. [objective80] Joint Task Force Subordinate Unified Command Specified Combatant Command Unified Combatant Command ________________________________________ 10) The _____ system provides many things, including the means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made. [objective81] National Military Command Joint Force Commander's Communication Defense Continuity Nuclear Command and Control ________________________________________ 11) The Marine Corps, while also steeped in tradition and focused on the individual Marine, prides itself on its quick responsiveness and its minimal non-combatant infrastructure. This dynamic is which of the key elements to remember when working with other services? [objective82] Static vs. dynamic mission sets Size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility Centralized vs. decentralized approach Base-centric vs. ship-centric ________________________________________ 12) _____ encompasses the exercise of authority, responsibility, and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces to accomplish the mission. [objective77] Command and control Movement and maneuver Intelligence Synergy ________________________________________ Module 5 - Joint Intelligence Post Test contains 19 Questions 1) Automation technology can be used to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of _____ to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of _____ to make an assessment. [objective84] data, information intelligence, data information, intelligence data, intelligence ________________________________________ 2) Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and may result in the production of what three products? [objective102] Contingency Plan National Intelligence Support Plan Annex B: Intelligence Dynamic Threat Assessment ________________________________________ 3) Analysis is a synthesis of quantitative analysis and qualitative judgment and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations. [objective86] True False ________________________________________ 4) Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.) [objective87] [Remediation Accessed :N] Ensures that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders (JFCs), staff, and components Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives Assesses the characteristics of the adversary's decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited Analyzes the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment ________________________________________ 5) Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective88] visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE understand adversary capabilities and intentions support a predictive estimation of the situation ________________________________________ 6) During this activity in the joint intelligence process raw data is converted into forms that can be readily used by commanders, decision makers at all levels, intelligence analysts, and other consumers. [objective89] Collection Dissemination and Integration Processing and Exploitation Analysis and Production ________________________________________ 7) Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements? (Select all that apply.) [objective90] PIRs are any subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence. Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements. The JFC's PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements. ________________________________________ 8) Which of the following must collection managers continuously monitor the results of? (Select all that apply.) [objective91] [Remediation Accessed :N] Diversity and availability of intelligence dissemination paths Effectiveness of meeting collection requirements to address the JFC's evaluation and feedback portion of the intelligence process Processing and exploitation and production capacity Available collection assets ________________________________________ 9) Dissemination of information can sometimes be defined by a strategy called "push and pull". Pull _____. involves direct electronic access to databases, intelligence files, or other repositories by intelligence organizations at all levels refers to validating information from multiple sources allows the higher echelons to move intelligence down to satisfy existing lower echelon requirements or to relay other relevant information to the lower level indicates information that is pulled from raw data that cannot be validated ________________________________________ 10) This intelligence product category involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. [objective93] Identity Intelligence Estimative Intelligence Current Intelligence Target Intelligence ________________________________________ 11) This intelligence product category results from the fusion of identity attributes and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. [objective94] Warning Intelligence Identity Intelligence General Military Intelligence Target Intelligence ________________________________________ 12) What level of intelligence supports joint operations across the range of military operations in an area of responsibility and determines the current and future capabilities of adversaries that could affect the national security and U.S. or allied interests? [objective95] Force strategic Operational National strategic Theater strategic ________________________________________ 13) An intelligence estimate of the enemy campaign lines of operation based on intelligence reporting of an extremist group's use of safe houses and the local population for logistical support is an example of what level of intelligence? [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N] Theater strategic Human Tactical Operational ________________________________________ 14) When considering the principle of synchronization, the most common error that impacts the J2, J3, and J5 is the failure to build sufficient lead time for intelligence production. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N] False True ________________________________________ 15) Match each intelligence description to its product category. [objective98] a) Vulnerable to incomplete information and adversary deception, but should never be avoided because it helps JFCs determine enemy intentions and capabilities. b) Results in a finished intelligence product that provides the most accurate and complete picture possible of what is known about an activity. c) Requires that all intelligence sources and methods be applied in concert with the operations plan and operations order. d) Relies on unhindered access to and sharing of all relevant information and can take many forms such as competitive analysis, brain storming, and federation. Synchronization Prediction Fusion Collaboration ________________________________________ 16) A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating _____. [objective99] nongovernmental organizations interested UN countries state and local militias partner nation intelligence capabilities and assessments ________________________________________ 17) Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence? [objective100] Department of State (DOS) Bureau of Intelligence and Research Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) Department of Energy (DOE) Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) ________________________________________ 18) The _____ is the primary intelligence organization that provides support to the combatant commands. [objective101] Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC) Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJOIC) Joint Intelligence Support Element (JISE) ________________________________________ 19) Technology is often applied against what common analyst challenge? [objective85] CCIR management Information overload Subjective assessments Replacing cross staff collaboration Module 5 - Joint Intelligence Post Test contains 4 Questions ________________________________________ 1) Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective87] visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE support a predictive estimate of the situation understand adversary capabilities and intentions ________________________________________ 2) What is the definition of collection requirements management? [objective91] Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information Matching the commander's critical information requirements with other intelligence operations Synchronizing the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations ________________________________________ 3) An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent? [objective96] Tactical Theater strategic Operational Human ________________________________________ 4) Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN an intelligence brief is presented to the planning staff. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent? [objective97] Integrity Collaboration Synchronization Prioritization Module 6 - Joint Operations Post Test contains 24 Questions 1) Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission. [objective104] security cooperation major campaigns combat operations deterrence activities ________________________________________ 2) During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to transfer responsibility of operations to another authority as the termination criteria. [objective127] False True ________________________________________ 3) _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance. [objective106] Foreign humanitarian assistance Stability operations Peace operations Recovery operations ________________________________________ 4) _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents. [objective107] Homeland defense Recovery operations Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management Civil support ________________________________________ 5) By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose. [objective108] visualize mitigate organize synchronize ________________________________________ 6) Phasing helps commanders _____ risk in the more dangerous or difficult portions of an operation. [objective109] mitigate synchronize visualize organize ________________________________________ 7) _____ is the routine contact and interaction between individuals or elements of the U.S. Armed Forces and other nations' armed forces, or foreign and domestic civilian authorities or agencies, to build trust and confidence, share information, coordinate mutual activities, and maintain influence. [objective110] Interdiction Intervention Engagement Security cooperation ________________________________________ 8) Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.) [objective111] Foster a climate of peaceful cooperation Remove forces from area Develop a Security Cooperation Plan Ensure joint operations forces are ready to conduct decisive operations ________________________________________ 9) _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency. [objective112] Continuity of operations Engagement activities Commitment of forces Advance measures ________________________________________ 10) _____ is/are actions taken directly against terrorist networks and indirectly to influence and render global and regional environments inhospitable to terrorist networks. [objective113] Antiterrorism Counterinsurgency Counterterrorism Stability operations ________________________________________ 11) If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment. [objective114] external threats internal conflict credible threats coup d'etat ________________________________________ 12) The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation. [objective115] interdiction antiterrorism crisis response peacekeeping operation ________________________________________ 13) The _____ is responsible for conducting military operations to assist in the implementation of emergency action plans. [objective116] Secretary of State Secretary of Defense Geographic Combatant Commander U.S. Ambassador, or Chief of the Diplomatic Mission ________________________________________ 14) It is imperative to have a clear national strategic end state for all types of contingencies, regardless of operation _____. [objective117] conditions viability commitment duration ________________________________________ 15) A(n) _____ is a series of tactical actions, such as battles, engagements, and strikes. [objective118] campaign dominance interdiction major operation ________________________________________ 16) Campaigns are _____. [objective119] independently embarked on the most extensive of joint operations service oriented low in resource requirements ________________________________________ 17) Force protection is a required activity throughout each joint operation or campaign phase. This type of operation is a(n) _____ operation. [objective120] [Remediation Accessed :N] defensive offensive stability planning ________________________________________ 18) _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction. [objective121] Planning Defensive Offensive Stability ________________________________________ 19) Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase. [objective122] [Remediation Accessed :N] seize dominate deter shape ________________________________________ 20) Stripping away enemy support and freedom of action through information operations and lines of communications, is an action in the _____ phase. [objective123] [Remediation Accessed :N] seize dominate deter shape ________________________________________ 21) The "Seize the Initiative" phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to: (Select all that apply.) [objective124] deny the enemy the opportunity to achieve its objectives generate in the enemy a sense of inevitable failure and defeat seize and maintain the initiative denounce enemy military by using propaganda to turn public against their military leadership ________________________________________ 22) When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces and where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions? [objective125] linear operations in noncontiguous AOs nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs linear operations in contiguous AOs ________________________________________ 23) During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists. [objective126] True False ________________________________________ 24) _____ is a general term used to describe military actions conducted by joint forces or by service forces employed under command relationships. [objective105] Range of military operations Major operations Strategic operations Joint operations Module 7 - Joint Force Sustainment Post Test 1) Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment? [objective128] Services USTRANSCOM Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)/Services Joint Staff ________________________________________ 2) Movement begins with _____. [objective153] validating movement requirements determining readiness inspecting personnel and supplies confirming ongoing mission ________________________________________ 3) Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, commander's intent, and operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations? [objective130] Execution Assessment Planning Control ________________________________________ 4) A logistics synchronization matrix allows joint logistician to monitor progress by which two of the following? [objective131] displaying the logistician's critical tasks displaying the level of risk in which the logistician must operate displaying the logistician's responsibilities for integration displaying the timeline in which the logistician must complete tasks ________________________________________ 5) Which core capability supports movement of forces and equipment? [objective132] [Remediation Accessed :N] maintenance operations logistic services deployment and distribution supply ________________________________________ 6) Core joint logistic capabilities are the _____ used to achieve objectives. [objective133] processes, functions, and timetables people, places, and things agencies, materiel, and transportation ends, ways, and means ________________________________________ 7) Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? [objective134] [Remediation Accessed :N] Religious Ministry Legal Support Human Resources Financial Management ________________________________________ 8) The principles of personnel support are defined as having a _____ that is _____. [objective135] command emphasis; responsive, and responsible command emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible staff emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible staff emphasis; responsive and responsible ________________________________________ 9) The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective136] [Remediation Accessed :N] apportion forces to the combatant commander collect and analyze relevant information identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements develop the most effective solution to a problem ________________________________________ 10) Which of the following describes Global Force Management? (Select all that apply.) [objective137] [Remediation Accessed :N] It aligns force assignment, apportionment, and allocation methodologies to support the National Defense Strategy, joint force availability, and assessments. It provides the most effective solution to a personnel problem. It provides senior decision makers a process to quickly and accurately assess the impact and risk of proposed changes to the distribution of forces and capabilities. It offers insights into the global availability of U.S. military forces and capabilities. ________________________________________ 11) Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force headquarters? [objective138] SecDef Joint Force Commander Staff Judge Advocate Geographic Combatant Commander ________________________________________ 12) While employed, the Staff Judge Advocate ensures that the joint force commander understands the _____. [objective139] requirements from host nations for a transparent legal environment in which to conduct joint operations traffic laws and ports of entry requirements that impact transportation of personnel and materiel into the foreign nation laws, treaties, and agreements that apply to U.S. relations with the foreign governments and their inhabitants cultures and religious beliefs that impact U.S. relationships with the foreign inhabitants ________________________________________ 13) A permissive operational environment describes situations when the _____. [objective140] host government forces do not have totally effective control of the territory and population in the intended operational area (OA) host country and law enforcement agencies have control, the intent, and the capability to assist operations that a unit needs to conduct host government forces have some control over the population, but the forces are fractioned providing minimal support of operations hostile forces have control, intent, and capability to effectively oppose operations ________________________________________ 14) Which of the following is described as the ability to project the military instrument of national power? [objective141] Global force management Operation plan (OPLAN) Global force projection Concept of operations (CONOPS) ________________________________________ 15) Which stage of the projection process is identified by the movement of forces within the operational areas (OAs), the positioning of forces into a formation for battle, or the relocation of forces and materiel to a different OA? [objective142] Redeployment Mobilization Sustainment Deployment ________________________________________ 16) During which phase of projection are forces and materiel transferred to support another joint force commander's operational requirements? [objective143] Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) Redeployment Deployment Sustainment ________________________________________ 17) The strategic mobility triad is composed of which elements? [objective144] [Remediation Accessed :N] Mobility, agility, and flexibility Pre-positioning, airlift, and sealift Visibility, transferability, and transportability U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), operational control (OPCON), and operation plan (OPLAN) ________________________________________ 18) Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands? [objective145] Supporting Combatant Commander Supported Combatant Commander SecDef Commander, Joint Chiefs of Staff ________________________________________ 19) Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces? [objective146] Military Departments Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) Supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) SecDef ________________________________________ 20) Which of the following types of plans describes the most probable outcomes of a mission and identifies force requirements? [objective147] Crisis Plan Contingency Plan Operation plan (OPLAN) Concept of operations (CONOPS) ________________________________________ 21) Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) [objective148] [Remediation Accessed :N] Mobility Deployment planning Predeployment activities Movement ________________________________________ 22) Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational commander's force? [objective149] Onward movement Staging Integration Reception ________________________________________ 23) Who is responsible for joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration? [objective150] [Remediation Accessed :N] Supporting Combatant Commander Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Supported Combatant Commander SecDef ________________________________________ 24) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are defined as 'essential'? (Select all that apply.) [objective151] contract support communication systems host nation support support organizations and structures ________________________________________ 25) During the joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) phase of redeployment, destination reception refers to _____. [objective152] [Remediation Accessed :N] recovering the unit's assigned personnel and equipment preparing the force for the next crisis transporting forces via a common user or commercial lift from a port of debarkation (POD) to a demobilization station tracking the force to determine exact location of personnel, equipment, and materiel ________________________________________ 26) Which of the following key global providers supports the components of the joint force with equipment and supplies needed for sustained logistic readiness? [objective129] [Remediation Accessed :N] USTRANSCOM Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)/Services Joint Staff Services Module 7 - Joint Force Sustainment Post Test contains 9 Questions 1) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. [objective132] True False ________________________________________ 2) Which of the following provides plans, policy, and guidance on Service member issues? [objective134] Joint Manpower Division Personnel Services Division Director's Action Group Personnel Readiness Division ________________________________________ 3) The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) [objective136] collect and analyze relevant information identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements apportion forces to the combatant commander develop the most effective solution to a problem ________________________________________ 4) Once a mission is defined by the SecDef, the joint task force headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarized in the _____. [objective137] Global Force Management Plan Concept of Operations (CONOPS) Joint Manning Document Operation Plan (OPLAN) ________________________________________ 5) A forward deployed force and prepositioned assets, forces with organic movement capability, significantly contribute to the _____ of response. [objective144] [Remediation Accessed :N] Strength Flexibility Timeliness Success ________________________________________ 6) Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) [objective148] [Remediation Accessed :N] Mobility Predeployment activities Deployment planning Movement ________________________________________ 7) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are defined as 'enabling'? (Select all that apply.) [objective150] Contract support Multinational support Force protection Legal support ________________________________________ 8) Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.) [objective152] movement predeployment planning joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) ________________________________________ 9) The value of joint logistics can be determined by how well which of the following imperatives are attained? [objective129] commander's intent, operational objectives, and coordinated efforts of Services procedures, organization of Services, and establishment of a battle rhythm applicability of joint logistic capabilities, concept of operation (CONOPS), and rapid deployment of support unity of effort, joint logistics environment-wide visibility, and rapid and precise response Module 8 - Joint Operations Planning Post Test 1) _____ emphasizes planning for the next phase of operations or sequels to the current operation. [objective154] [Remediation Accessed :N] Future plans Future operations plans Current operations plans Theater-strategic plans ________________________________________ 2) In APEX, what do branches and sequels allows planners to do? [objective170] Update static plans in advance of execution Predict increased complexity in missions and interactions with multinational partners Monitor and modify the deployment and employment of forces Anticipate significant changes in key planning variables and outline associated assumptions and decision points ________________________________________ 3) The Joint Planning and Execution Community uses _____ to develop plans for a broad range of potential emergencies based on tasks identified in strategic documents. [objective156] [Remediation Accessed :N] planning directive execution crisis action planning deliberate planning ________________________________________ 4) What stage of the JOPES process includes mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, rotation, and demobilization activities? [objective157] Planning Directive Execution Crisis Action Planning Deliberate Planning ________________________________________ 5) In which area is a commander seeking an answer when he/she asks: "What sequence of actions is most likely to achieve those objectives and that end state?" [objective158] [Remediation Accessed :N] Ends Ways Means Risks ________________________________________ 6) The primary output of operational design is an operational approach, which describes the operational environment, the problem, and _____. [objective159] the commander's visualization of a broad approach for achieving the desired end state a clear understanding of the ends, ways, and means link tactical action to strategic objectives the framework that underpins a campaign or major operation plan ________________________________________ 7) The _____ involves attaining a clear understanding of the CCDR's strategic objectives, and it is the most important step in the JOPP for the Joint Force Commander. If this step is done incorrectly, all planning steps which follow could be flawed. [objective160] [Remediation Accessed :N] first step, Planning Initiation second step, Mission Analysis third step, Course of Action Development fifth step, Course of Action Approval ________________________________________ 8) The Joint Operational Planning Process, which is used during deliberate planning to produce both contingency and campaign plans, is comprised of the following steps: [objective161] [Remediation Accessed :N] Planning Initiation; Mission Analysis; Course of Action Development; COA Analysis and Wargaming; COA Comparison; COA Approval; and Plan or Order Development Determine and Analyze Operational Limitations; Determine the JFC's Specified, Implied, and Essential Tasks; Develop a Mission Statement; Conduct Initial Force Allocation Review; and Develop Risk Assessment Planning and Mission Analysis; Course of Action Development; Staff Assessments; COA Approval; and EXORD Issued Concept Development; Plan Assessment; IPR A; IPR C; and IPR R ________________________________________ 9) During Crisis Action Planning, the staff uses the Joint Force Commander's initial planning guidance, intent statement, CCIR, and revised mission statement to support COA _____. [objective162] [Remediation Accessed :N] analysis development comparison elimination ________________________________________ 10) The differences between deliberate planning and CAP primarily concern the following areas, except: [objective163] [Remediation Accessed :N] Time allotted for completion Prior information available The end product Operational activities ________________________________________ 11) The supported commander's _____ gives the Service components, supporting commands, and agencies a detailed OPLAN, and it formally tasks those involved to prepare for the operation. [objective164] [Remediation Accessed :N] OPORD OPLAN WARNORD EXORD ________________________________________ 12) In the Joint Planning Process, _____ describes the situation, establishes command relationships, and oppla the mission and any planning constraints. [objective165] [Remediation Accessed :N] WARNORD PLANORD OPLAN ALERTORD ________________________________________ 13) During _____, joint operations planning steps are compressed and blended together, and the commander's direction of the staff is continuous. [objective166] [Remediation Accessed :N] Living Planning Adaptive Planning and Execution (APEX) Deliberate Planning Crisis Action Planning ________________________________________ 14) According to doctrine, what does the staff focus on during planning? [objective167] Determining available resources to support the end state Developing effective plans and orders, and helping the commander make related decisions Determining whether the commander's situational awareness needs to be updated Developing courses of action that are all reasonable and executable ________________________________________ 15) In APEX, what does the EXORD define? [objective168] Time to initiate operations and guidance not provided earlier Expected impact of the selected COA Supporting commander's formal tasking for the execution of the mission Planning activities allowed in advance of formal COA selection by the President and/or SecDef ________________________________________ 16) What APEX activity is a cyclical process that assures the resulting plan has been properly adapted to address any important factors that may have changed from the time the plan was formulated? [objective169] Concept development Plan assessment IPR A IPR R ________________________________________ 17) A Joint Force Command (JFC) headquarters usually focuses at what level of war? [objective155] Strategic Operational Tactical Module 8 - Joint Operations Planning Post Test 1) _____ emphasizes planning for branches to current operations. [objective154] [Remediation Accessed :N] Future plans Future operations plans Current operations plans Theater-strategic plans ________________________________________ 3) In which area is a commander seeking an answer when he/she asks: "What is required to accomplish that sequence of actions within given or requested resources?" [objective158] Ends Ways Means Risks ________________________________________ 4) Deployment planning begins during the _____, and continues through each step of the joint operation planning process. [objective160] first step, Planning Initiation second step, Mission Analysis third step, Course of Action Development fifth step, Course of Action Approval ________________________________________ 5) In contingency planning, the _____ identifies the specific forces, functional support, and resources required to execute the plan, and it provides closure estimates for their flow into the theater. [objective161] commander's estimate base plan CONPLAN OPLAN ________________________________________ 6) During Crisis Action Planning, COA _____ is an objective process where the staff considers COAs independently of one another, against a set of criteria established by the Joint Force Commander and staff. [objective162] analysis development comparison elimination ________________________________________ 7) What activity involves analysis of COAs from individual functional perspectives to determine each COA's supportability and coordinates results in a collaborative knowledge-based environment? [objective163] [Remediation Accessed :N] Initial Report Mission Analysis Planning Guidance Development Staff Estimates ________________________________________ 8) In the Joint Planning Process, _____ saves times by allowing planning activities to begin in advance of a formal decision. [objective164] [Remediation Accessed :N] WARNORD PLANORD OPLAN ALERTORD ________________________________________ 9) In extremely time-sensitive situations, _____ may be the only message provided. [objective165] OPORD OPLAN WARNORD EXORD ________________________________________ 10) During _____, the Joint Force Commander will identify the operational problems to solve and determine where to focus the staff's efforts. [objective166] Planning Initiation Mission Analysis Plan or Order Development Course of Action Development Module 9 - Joint Command, Control, and Communication Post Test 1) _____ is authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking. [objective171] OPCON TACON ADCON COCOM ________________________________________ 2) _____ includes control of resources and equipment, personnel management, logistics, and individual and unit training among other areas. [objective172] TACON ADCON COCOM OPCON ________________________________________ 3) _____ are elements of information that the commander identifies as being critical to timely decision making. [objective174] Priority intelligence requirements Commander's critical information requirements Tactical information requirements Friendly force information requirements ________________________________________ 4) The _____ stage of the commander's decision cycle is facilitated by the commander's intent; CCIRs also assist the JTF HQ in this role. [objective175] monitor direct plan assess ________________________________________ 5) The _____ stage of the commander's decision cycle includes determination of the impact of events as they relate to overall mission accomplishment. [objective176] assess plan direct monitor ________________________________________ 6) Which of the following is NOT a tenant of Unity of Command? [objective173] Responsive, dependable and interoperable support systems Network-enabled operations Mutual trust Timely decision making ________________________________________ 7) For a communications system to be considered _____, the system must be procedurally and technically secure. [objective178] [Remediation Accessed :N] sustainable responsive protected survivable ________________________________________ 8) The joint communications system supports commander's intent and planning by enhancing situational awareness and decision making, as well as the conduct of missions. This contributes to _____. [objective179] strategic agility tactical flexibility network-enabled operations operational reach ________________________________________ 9) The joint communications system includes doctrine, tactics, techniques, and procedures, organizational relationships, and technology. This contributes to _____. [objective180] cyberspace strategic agility network-enabled operations information superiority ________________________________________ 10) _____ manages all deployed communication systems and serves as control agency for management and operation direction. [objective181] NETOPS Security Center Joint Information Management Board Joint Network Operations Control Center Theater Network Operations Control Center ________________________________________ 11) Command and control systems problems are reported to the _____. [objective182] [Remediation Accessed :N] Theater Network Operations Control Center Joint Network Operations Control Center NETOPS Security Center Joint Information Management Board ________________________________________ 12) _____ is when equipment and systems can be operated and maintained by personnel trained on any of the systems without additional specialized training. [objective177] Responsiveness Commonality Liaison Compatibility Module 10 - Joint Fires and Targeting Overview Post Test 1) By definition, fires are the use of _____. [objective183] weapon systems or other actions to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target lethal weapon systems to destroy an specific enemy equipment, infrastructure, and manpower any action to cause an effect within the operational environment any lethal and nonlethal weapon systems ________________________________________ 2) Which three of the following tasks, missions, and processes are joint fires? [objective184] [Remediation Accessed :N] Conducting joint targeting Conducting fire support training Countering air and missile threats Distributing emergency supplies Conducting strategic attacks ________________________________________ 3) What is a high-value target? [objective185] [Remediation Accessed :N] A target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission A loss to the enemy that will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action A target that is nearly irreplaceable to enemy functions throughout the operational environment A target that is able to cause considerable damage or disruption to friendly forces ________________________________________ 4) What is the purpose of dynamic targeting? (Select all that apply.) [objective186] [Remediation Accessed :N] The prosecution of planned targets known to exist in the operational environment The prosecution of targets identified too late for normal planning The management and prosecution of planned targets as plans change The comprehensive prosecution of known and unknown targets to the greatest effects of lethal and nonlethal fires ________________________________________ 5) A company of Marine infantry moving forward is engaged by enemy armor. On-call close air support is given the coordinates of the line of enemy defenses and rolls in and engages the enemy armor units with Hellfire missiles. What joint fire support task does this represent? [objective191] Support forces in contact Support the CONOPS Integrate and synchronize joint fire support Sustain joint fire support operations ________________________________________ 6) Working from a prioritized list of targets the joint force J3 prepares tasking orders and releases these orders to all subordinate commands. What phase of the targeting process does this represent? [objective188] [Remediation Accessed :N] Phase 4 - Commander's decision and force assignment Phase 2 - Target development and prioritization Phase 5 - Mission Planning and Force Execution Phase 3 - Capabilities analysis ________________________________________ 7) The principle of proportionality only applies when an attack may affect civilians or civilian objects and cause collateral damage. [objective189] [Remediation Accessed :N] True False ________________________________________ 8) Joint Fires Element (JFE) responsibilities and tasks include which of the following (select all that apply)? [objective190] Manage and direct intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection requirements Develop Joint Operating Area (JOA)-wide joint targeting guidance, objectives, and priorities Coordinate joint fires rules of engagement issues with mission partners Conduct joint fires and targeting assessments ________________________________________ 9) What is the focus of joint targeting? [objective187] Achieving the JFC's objectives Destroying the target Employing the customary fires against targets Employing the least amount of resources to achieved the desired effect 1) Which three of the following tasks, missions, and processes are joint fires? [objective184] [Remediation Accessed :N] Conducting fire support training Distributing emergency supplies Conducting strategic attacks Conducting joint targeting Countering air and missile threats ________________________________________ 2) What is a target? [objective185] An entity or object considered for possible engagement or action An entity or object considered for lethal fires All enemy entities or objects An offensive of defensive enemy weapon considered for engagement or action ________________________________________ 3) What is the purpose of joint targeting? [objective186] The process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them The process of locating and isolating targets to enable the greatest lethal, on nonlethal effect The process of designating and assigning targets to joint force subordinate commands The process of categorizing the characteristics of all targets ________________________________________ 4) Which one of the following phases of the targeting cycle includes understanding the military end state and the commander's intent, and objectives and then analyzing the objectives to make sure they are observable, achievable, and reasonable? [objective188] End State and Commander's Objectives Target development and prioritization Commander's decision and force assignment Capabilities analysis ________________________________________ 5) Which three of the following apply to the law of war principle of distinction (or discrimination)? [objective189] Prohibits attack on civilian infrastructure such as bridges and highways Requires the defender segregate noncombatants and refrain from placing military personnel or material in close proximity to civilian objects or locations Attackers are required to use only those means and methods of attack that are discriminate in effect and can be controlled Places requirements on both the attacker and the defender Module 11 - Interorganizational Coordination and Multinational Considerations Post Test 1) Interorganizational coordination is the interaction that occurs among elements of the DoD; engaged USG agencies; state, territorial, local, and tribal agencies; foreign military forces and government agencies; intergovernmental organizations (IGOs); nongovernmental organizations (NGOs); and the private sector. [objective192] True False ________________________________________ 2) For effective interorganizational coordination, JTF personnel should develop a(n) _____ perspective of the operating environment by leveraging interorganizational perspectives at the tactical, operational and strategic levels. [objective193] joint holistic military military ________________________________________ 3) Effective multinational operations require international rationalization, standardization, and _____ with friendly nations. [objective197] functionalization stabilization intercommunication interoperability ________________________________________ 4) Military operations inside the U.S. and its territories fall into two mission areas: [objective195] U.S. Northern Command and North America Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) Homeland Defense and Civil Support Homeland Defense and Defense Support to Domestic Operations (DSDO) Homeland Security and Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA) ________________________________________ 5) Within an embassy, the Chief of Mission is normally _____. [objective196] subordinate to the local combatant commander a head of state the embassy director an ambassador ________________________________________ 6) When establishing methods of coordination with other Mission Partners, it's important to establish a workable process and maintain it over time without modification, regardless of changes with relationships or in the operating environment. This will create uniformity and continuity in times of chaos. [objective194] True False Module 12 - CCIR at the Operational Level Post Test 1) CCIRs that focus primarily on well-defined decision points provide the commander with a broad view to support better understanding of the complex environment. [objective198] [Remediation Accessed :N] True False ________________________________________ 2) What characteristics of the complex environment have affected the view of CCIRs? (Select all that apply.) [objective199] globalization interdependence predictable adversaries information revolution ________________________________________ 3) What can be used to ensure that the appropriate personnel are notified when information answering CCIRs and other important information requirements and events is received? [objective203] notification criteria matrices JOC chart decision support templates all of the answers are correct ________________________________________ 4) Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE? [objective201] [Remediation Accessed :N] Some branch and sequel planning at the operational level may not result in precise, detailed predictive decision points with associated CCIRs. Branch and sequel planning, at the operational level, results in precise, predictive decision points with associated CCIRs. Much of the information precipitating operational commanders' major decisions across all event horizons will likely come off the JOC floor, rather than through other venues. Decision points supporting branch and sequel execution are normally extremely well defined and quantitative requiring minimal commander interface for decision. ________________________________________ 5) To facilitate component and stakeholder awareness of CCIRs, where can commanders post CCIRs and their statuses? [objective202] commander's dashboard web portal operations centers all of the answers are correct ________________________________________ 6) What effect(s) can occur when commanders retain tactical level decision-oriented CCIRs at the operational level in lieu of decentralizing CCIRs associated with decentralized decision approval levels? slows subordinates' agility adds unnecessary reporting requirements shifts HQ's focus away from setting conditions all of the answers are correct ________________________________________ 1) Commanders at most operational-level headquarters have observed that CCIRs are developed to support three major activities. One of these major activities is "prioritization of limited resources." The other two are _____. [objective198] commander decision-making and branch planning commander decision-making and understanding the complex environment well-defined decision points and non-lethal actions sequel planning and collection analysis ________________________________________ 2) Which of the following choices best summarizes the key insights relating to the development, approval, and dissemination of CCIRs? [objective201] [Remediation Accessed :N] Planners drive the development of CCIRs as commanders collaborate with partners to ensure the relevance of CCIRs. These CCIRs must be constantly monitored to ensure they transcend all three event horizons and met higher-headquarters priorities. Commanders drive the development of CCIRs as planners help develop the CCIRs exclusively in the current operations event horizon. CCIRs will likely not include partner actions but may change as the mission changes. A process to periodically review CCIRs provides little benefit and thus is not required. Commanders drive the development of CCIRs. Planners help develop CCIRs to support understanding and decision making across all three event horizons. CCIRs may likely include DIME partner actions and change as the operating environment changes. CCIRs should be periodically reviewed and updated. Module 13 - Gaining and Sharing Information and Knowledge Post Test 1) In order to help support the commanders' decision-making process, the staff must understand the commanders' information needs. What is a good starting point to focus the staff and its limited resources to provide relevant information to support decision-making? [objective213] commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) knowledge management plan (KMP) digital rules of engagement operations plan (OPLAN) ________________________________________ 2) Which of the following statements about the commander's perspectives is FALSE? [objective214] In order to gain situational understanding, commanders are emphasizing an increased reliance on processes and technological solutions, rather than people interaction. Commanders can greatly assist their staff by sharing their unique perspectives. Commanders should instill a climate of seamless information sharing and push toward "co-creation" of context. Commanders should focus their units and staff through commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) that address both necessary decisions and information needs. ________________________________________ 3) What benefit(s) can commanders derive from the myriad of players and information flows that make up the complex operational environment? [objective215] There is little benefit, if any, to be gained from the myriad of players and information flows. The 'costs' associated with the complex environment far outweigh any benefit which may be gained. Commanders at every level can gain situational awareness through the many different compartmentalized processes and technologies that each player brings. Experience, expertise, and perspectives can be leveraged through collaboration and dialogue among many players. ________________________________________ 4) Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today's headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions? [objective216] KM is people-centric. IM is information technology-centric. KM is technology-centric. IM is people-centric. KM focuses on the rules, procedures, applications, an